An integral  is  improper if:
 is  improper if:
1. One of the limits is infinite.
2. The integrand "blows up" somewhere on the interval of integration.
It is possible for both of these things to occur in the same integral.
For example, these integrals are improper because they have infinite limits of integration:
 
These integrals are improper because the integrands become infinite on the intervals of integration:
 
Improper integrals can be reduced to four cases:
   1.  .
 .
   2.  .
 .
   3.  , where
 , where  is undefined.
 is undefined.
   4.  , where
 , where  is undefined.
 is undefined.
You can reduce integrals with more than one "bad thing" going on to the cases above by breaking them up into pieces. For example,
 
The original integral has two infinite limits. I pick a point at random (in this case, 0), and break the integral up there. I now have two improper integrals, each with one infinite limit. They fall into the first two cases above.
Likewise,
 
   In the original integral, the function  blows up in the middle
   of the interval of integration. I break the integral up at 1, and the
   two integrals that result fall into the third and fourth cases.
 blows up in the middle
   of the interval of integration. I break the integral up at 1, and the
   two integrals that result fall into the third and fourth cases.
Because I can break more complicated integrals up in these ways, I just have to say what to do in the four cases above.
In the case of an infinite limit, define
 
 
If the limit on the right side exists, the integral converges, and the value of the integral is the value of the limit. Otherwise, the integral diverges.
   The case where the integrand does not have a limit at one of the
   endpoints of the integration interval are similar. For example,
   suppose that  is
   undefined. Define
 is
   undefined. Define
 
   Likewise, if  is
   undefined, define
 is
   undefined, define
 
As in the infinite case, if the limit on the right side exists, the integral converges, and the value of the integral is the value of the limit. Otherwise, the integral diverges.
    Example. Compute  .
 .
   Replace the infinite limit with a parameter c, then take the limit as
    :
 :
![$$\int_0^\infty e^{-3x}\,dx = \lim_{c \to \infty} \int_0^c e^{-3x}\,dx = \lim_{c \to \infty} \left[-\dfrac{1}{3} e^{-3x}\right]_0^c = \lim_{c \to \infty} -\dfrac{1}{3}\left(e^{-3c} - 1\right) = -\dfrac{1}{3}\left(0 - 1\right) = \dfrac{1}{3}.$$](improper-integral21.png) 
   The integral represents the area under the graph of  from
 from  to
 to  .
 .
 
   The area is  : A region that has infinite extent can
   have finite area.
 : A region that has infinite extent can
   have finite area. 
    Example. Compute  .
 .
When both limits are infinite, divide the integral up into two pieces:
 
   The choice of  as the dividing point is arbitrary
   --- any number will do.
 as the dividing point is arbitrary
   --- any number will do.
   Next, compute each of the integrals. If either integral is
   undefined, the original integral is undefined. The is true even
   if one piece approaches  while the other
   approaches
 while the other
   approaches  --- you can't "cancel the
   infinities".
 --- you can't "cancel the
   infinities".
First,
![$$\int_0^\infty \dfrac{x}{x^2 + 9}\,dx = \lim_{a \to +\infty} \int_0^a \dfrac{x}{x^2 + 9}\,dx = \lim_{a \to +\infty} \left[\dfrac{1}{2} \ln (x^2 + 9)\right]_0^a = \dfrac{1}{2} \lim_{a \to +\infty} \left(\ln (a^2 + 9) - \ln 9\right) = +\infty.$$](improper-integral32.png) 
This is enough to make the original integral undefined --- that is, the integral diverges. I'll compute the second piece anyway:
![$$\int_{-\infty}^0 \dfrac{x}{x^2 + 9}\,dx = \lim_{b \to -\infty} \int_b^0 \dfrac{x}{x^2 + 9}\,dx = \lim_{b \to -\infty} \left[\dfrac{1}{2} \ln (x^2 + 9)\right]_b^0 = \dfrac{1}{2} \lim_{b \to -\infty} \left(\ln 9 - \ln (b^2 + 9)\right) = -\infty.$$](improper-integral33.png) 
   I again emphasize that you can't cancel the  from the first piece with the
 from the first piece with the  from the second piece.
 from the second piece.
 
   The first integral represents the area under the curve to the right
   of  . It is positive, and infinite. The second
   integral represents the (signed) area above the curve to the left of
 . It is positive, and infinite. The second
   integral represents the (signed) area above the curve to the left of
    . Since the curve lies below the x-axis for
 . Since the curve lies below the x-axis for  , the integral is negative and infinite.
 , the integral is negative and infinite. 
    Example. Compute  .
 .
   The integrand  is
   undefined at
 is
   undefined at  , which is the left endpoint of
   the interval of integration. Replace 0 with a parameter a, and take
   the (right-hand) limit as
 , which is the left endpoint of
   the interval of integration. Replace 0 with a parameter a, and take
   the (right-hand) limit as  :
 :
![$$\int_0^4 \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\,dx = \lim_{a \to 0+} \int_a^4 \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\,dx = \lim_{a \to 0+} \left[2\sqrt{x}\right]_a^4 = \lim_{a \to 0+} \left(4 - 2\sqrt{a}\right) = 4 - 0 = 4.$$](improper-integral44.png) 
   Notice that  has a
   vertical asymptote at
 has a
   vertical asymptote at  :
 :
 
    Example. Compute  .
 .
   The integrand  is defined at
 is defined at  , which lies in the middle of the interval of
   integration. Break the integral up into two pieces at
 , which lies in the middle of the interval of
   integration. Break the integral up into two pieces at  , and compute each piece separately. As in the
   example above, if one piece diverges, the original integral diverges.
 , and compute each piece separately. As in the
   example above, if one piece diverges, the original integral diverges.
 
The first integral is
![$$\int_0^1 \dfrac{1}{(x - 1)^2}\,dx = \lim_{a \to 1-} \int_0^a \dfrac{1}{(x - 1)^2}\,dx = \lim_{a \to 1-} \left[-\dfrac{1}{x - 1}\right]_0^a = \lim_{a \to 1-} \left(-\dfrac{1}{a - 1} + 1\right) = +\infty.$$](improper-integral53.png) 
I could stop here --- the original integral diverges --- but I'll grind out the second integral anyway.
![$$\int_1^2 \dfrac{1}{(x - 1)^2}\,dx = \lim_{b \to 1+} \int_b^2 \dfrac{1}{(x - 1)^2}\,dx = \lim_{b \to 1+} \left[-\dfrac{1}{x - 1}\right]_b^2 = \lim_{b \to 1+} \left(-1 + \dfrac{1}{b - 1}\right) = +\infty.$$](improper-integral54.png) 
   Note that (as in the earlier example) if one piece approaches  and the other approaches
 and the other approaches  , you're not allowed to "cancel the
   infinities".
 , you're not allowed to "cancel the
   infinities". 
    Example. Compute  .
 .
   This integral is improper for two reasons: First, the
   integrand  is
   undefined at
 is
   undefined at  , which is in the interval of
   integration. Second, one of the limits of integration is infinite.
 , which is in the interval of
   integration. Second, one of the limits of integration is infinite.
   First, I need to break the integral up into two pieces at  :
 :
 
   In the second integral, the lower limit  makes the integrand undefined and the upper limit is
   infinite. Thus, I need to break the second integral up into two
   pieces. I can choose any point between 5 and
 makes the integrand undefined and the upper limit is
   infinite. Thus, I need to break the second integral up into two
   pieces. I can choose any point between 5 and  as the break point; I'll use
 as the break point; I'll use  .
 .
 
Next, I'll compute the three integrals. Note that
 
   (Let  .)
 .)
First,
![$$\int_0^5 \dfrac{1}{(x - 5)^{1/3}}\,dx = \lim_{a\to 5^-} \int_0^a \dfrac{1}{(x - 5)^{1/3}}\,dx = \lim_{a\to 5^-} \left[\dfrac{3}{2}(x - 5)^{2/3}\right]_0^a = \lim_{a\to 5^-} \left(\dfrac{3}{2}(a - 5)^{2/3} - \dfrac{3}{2}(-5)^{2/3}\right) =$$](improper-integral68.png) 
 
   (Note that  since the even power
   "2" eliminates the minus sign.)
 since the even power
   "2" eliminates the minus sign.)
Next,
![$$\int_5^6 \dfrac{1}{(x - 5)^{1/3}}\,dx = \lim_{b \to 5^+} \int_b^6 \dfrac{1}{(x - 5)^{1/3}}\,dx = \lim_{b \to 5^+} \left[\dfrac{3}{2}(x - 5)^{2/3}\right]_b^6 = \lim_{b \to 5^+} \left(\dfrac{3}{2} - \dfrac{3}{2}(b - 5)^{2/3}\right) = \dfrac{3}{2} - 0 = \dfrac{3}{2}.$$](improper-integral71.png) 
Finally,
![$$\int_6^\infty \dfrac{1}{(x - 5)^{1/3}}\,dx = \lim_{c\to \infty} \int_6^c \dfrac{1}{(x - 5)^{1/3}}\,dx = \lim_{c\to \infty} \left[\dfrac{3}{2}(x - 5)^{2/3}\right]_6^c = \lim_{c\to \infty} \left(\dfrac{3}{2}(c - 5)^{2/3} - \dfrac{3}{2}\right) =$$](improper-integral72.png) 
 
   The first two integrals converged, but the third diverged to  . Therefore,
 . Therefore,
 
In some cases, you can tell whether an improper integral converges or diverges by comparing it to another integral.
   1. If  and
 and  converges, then
 converges, then  converges.
 converges.
   2. If  and
 and  , then
 , then  .
 .
Similar results hold for improper integrals where the integrand blows up on the interval of integration.
    Example. Show that  converges.
 converges.
   The antiderivative  can't be computed in closed form. Instead, I'll
   compare this integral to an integral which I can show converges.
 can't be computed in closed form. Instead, I'll
   compare this integral to an integral which I can show converges.
   Since the limits of integration are 1 to  ,
 ,  , and therefore
 , and therefore  .
 .
 
So
![$$\int_1^\infty e^{-x^2}\,dx \le \int_1^\infty x e^{-x^2}\,dx = \lim_{b \to \infty} \int_1^b x e^{-x^2}\,dx = \lim_{b \to \infty} \left[-\dfrac{1}{2} e^{-x^2}\right]_1^b = \lim_{b \to \infty} \left(\dfrac{1}{2} e^{-1} - \dfrac{1}{2} e^{-b^2}\right) = \dfrac{1}{2} e^{-1}.$$](improper-integral88.png) 
   (I did the integral using the substitution  .)
 .)  converges, and it is larger than the
   original integral. Therefore,
 converges, and it is larger than the
   original integral. Therefore,  converges.
 converges.
   You can see why this works geometrically by considering the picture
   above.  represents the area under
   represents the area under  from 1 to
 from 1 to  . The computation I did shows that this area is
   finite --- in fact, it's
 . The computation I did shows that this area is
   finite --- in fact, it's  .
 .
    represents the area
   under
 represents the area
   under  from 1 to
 from 1 to  . This area is less than the area under
 . This area is less than the area under  . Since the area under
 . Since the area under  is finite, the area under
 is finite, the area under  must be finite as well.
 must be finite as well. 
Example. Does the following integral converge or diverge?
 
   Note that  is positive
   for
 is positive
   for  . Also,
 . Also,  is undefined.
 is undefined.
   For  , I have
 , I have  (because
 (because  ). So
 ). So
 
Hence,
 
Now do the second integral:
![$$\int_1^2 \dfrac{1}{x - 1}\,dx = \lim_{b \to 1^+} \int_b^2 \dfrac{1}{x - 1}\,dx = \lim_{b \to 1^+} \left[\ln |x - 1|\right]_b^2 = \lim_{b \to 1^+} \left(\ln 1 - \ln |b - 1|\right) = +\infty.$$](improper-integral111.png) 
   Therefore,  diverges by comparison.
   diverges by comparison. 
Here's the graph of the two functions:
 
   The upper graph is  and the lower
   graph is
 and the lower
   graph is  .
 .
Copyright 2019 by Bruce Ikenaga